No, I don't think so. I've never considered that it could.
What you may need to be careful of is switching a statement prepared with one transaction to execute in the context of a
different transaction. This actually should work as far as I'm concerned, but the server may not exactly like it.

I think the only reason prepare needs a transaction handle is so it can do the necessary metadata queries. I'm not sure if
it goes any deeper than that. If anyone knows feel free to share.

Jason Wharton

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Can assigning a newly created query to a Transaction that has already
started cause problems?

Regards

Sandeep