> I set the AUTOCOMMIT property of the transaction to TRUE and it
> works. When the second user wants to open the same record the first
> user already opened, I give a message that the record is in use and
> disable the save-functionality. I administer who locks a record in a
> separate table. This solution works, but how do you pro's consider
> this? A dirty solution???

Absolutely a dirty solution. If it works with AutoCommit (which is just
an implicit commit then start transaction after each statement is run),
then it has to be a transaction isolation issue.

Check your ODBC settings for the isolation level. I would also pay
special attention to anything you do inside a trigger. For example, if
the same record in your second table that holds the lock information is
updated by multiple records, the deadlock may actually be on that
record rather than the original.

Adam